Name: __________________________ Date: _____________
1. Psychologist and neuroscientist Roger Sperry is BEST known for: A) his efforts to debunk the pseudoscientific claims of phrenology. B) the discovery of neurogenesis in the adult human brain. C) his studies on split-brain patients. D) identifying the specific brain areas involved in different forms of aphasia.
2. The _____ lobe primarily control’s a person’s ability to plan, initiate, and carry out voluntary movements and actions. A) frontal B) occipital C) parietal D) temporal
3. Cones are concentrated in the _____ and specialized for _____. A) center of the retina; distance vision and feature detection B) fovea; color vision and visual acuity C) fovea; peripheral vision and vision in low-light conditions D) periphery of the retina; color vision and visual acuity
4. Sigmund Freud’s school of thought, called _____, emphasized the role of unconscious conflicts in determining behavior and personality. A) structuralism B) functionalism C) psychoanalysis D) behaviorism
5. The optic disk produces: A) color vision. B) night vision. C) the blind spot. D) proprioception.
6. When thinking like a scientist, it is important to: A) engage in critical thinking. B) utilize a costs-benefits analysis. C) identify unconscious motivations. D) avoid speculating about the truth.
7. The _____ functions as the main link between the nervous system and the endocrine system. A) adrenal medulla B) adrenal cortex C) amygdala D) hypothalamus
8. Nicotine is classified as a(n): A) endorphin. B) SSRI. C) agonist. D) antagonist.
9. The brainstem is made up of the _____ and the _____. A) forebrain; midbrain B) cerebellum; medulla C) reticular formation; pons D) midbrain; hindbrain
10. _____ is the branch of science that is concerned with the study of the nervous system, especially the brain. A) Plasticity B) Neuroscience C) Clinical psychiatry D) Developmental psychology
11. _____, a famous American psychologist, described consciousness as being like a river or a stream. A) William James B) Erik Erikson C) J. Allan Hobson D) Sigmund Freud
12. According to the _____ theory of hypnosis, people who are hypnotized are not in any special state of consciousness but are simply highly motivated to respond to the demands of the hypnotist and the situation. A) neodissociation B) imaginative suggestibility C) social-cognitive D) activation–synthesis
13. _____ cannot be produced through hypnosis. A) Temporary blindness or deafness B) Temporary moments of superhuman strength C) Relief from pain D) Loss of sensation in a specific body area, such as an arm or a leg,
14. Mr. Westerbrook did not notice when his wife, Priscilla, got her hair cut because he wasn’t paying attention to her appearance when she walked into the house. Mr. Westerbrook’s failure to notice that Priscilla cut her hair is most likely an example of: A) attention deficit. B) change blindness. C) the cocktail party effect. D) mindfulness.
15. Whenever Lloyd uses his favorite drug, he experiences intense euphoria, mental alertness, and increased self-confidence. These psychological responses occur because the drug he takes blocks the reuptake of dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine, which potentiates the effects of these neurotransmitters. Lloyd’s favorite drug is: A) caffeine. B) cocaine. C) heroin. D) marijuana.
16. Mandy is 8 months old, her mother Jennie is 40 years old, and her grandmother Matilda is 70 years old. During a typical 24-hour period, who experiences the HIGHEST proportion of REM to NREM sleep? A) Jennie B) Matilda C) Mandy D) Mandy, Jennie, and Matilda all experience the same approximate proportion of
REM to NREM sleep during a typical 24-hour period.
17. Which of the following is/are necessary in order to stay precisely synchronized, or entrained, to a 24-hour-day? A) medication B) long periods of darkness C) exposure to environmental time signals D) naps
18. _____ promote(s) wakefulness, mental alertness, vigilance, and faster thought processes by stimulating the release of dopamine in the brain’s prefrontal cortex and by blocking adenosine’s sleep-inducing effects. A) Nicotine B) Caffeine C) Cocaine D) Amphetamines
19. In a meditation training study where participants learned to meditate over the course of eight weeks, researchers found that: A) the new meditators showed gray-matter density increases in several cortical areas. B) cortical thickness was negatively correlated with meditation experience. C) meditation does not alter the brain. D) the new meditators showed gray-matter density decreases in several cortical areas.
20. Sleep restriction studies have shown that: A) research participants adapted to the four-hour-per-night sleep schedule by the end
of the first week and showed no cognitive or physical impairments over the course of the experiments.
B) there were some beneficial effects in terms of memory consolidation, reaction time, and immune system functioning.
C) immune system functioning, concentration, vigilance, reaction time, memory skills, and ability to gauge risk were all diminished.
D) there is no evidence to support the notion that REM and NREM sleep deprivation result in REM and NREM rebound effects.
21. Which of the following statements about dreaming is FALSE? A) People usually have four or five dreaming episodes each night. B) The first REM episode of the night is the shortest, lasting only about 10 minutes. C) Early-morning dreams, which can last for 40 minutes or longer, are the dreams
most likely to be remembered. D) Most of our nighttime dreams are frightening and may signal early warning signs
of depression or anxiety.
22. Techniques for focusing attention, which are found in most cultures and many religions, that induce an altered state of focused attention and heightened awareness are called: A) stimulus control strategies. B) imaginative suggestibility strategies. C) hypnosis techniques. D) meditation techniques.
23. Long-term abuse of methamphetamines contribute to the most difficulty in which area? A) balance B) self-care needs C) memory D) language
24. The activation of the _____ area(s) in the brain reflect the emotional qualities of dreams. A) prefrontal cortex B) limbic system C) language D) left hemisphere
25. Biological processes that systematically vary over a 24-hour cycle are called _____ and are regulated by a cluster of neurons called the _____. A) intrinsic rhythms; melatonin cluster B) circadian rhythms; suprachiasmatic nucleus C) circadian rhythms; pineal gland D) brain waves; suprachiasmatic nucleus
26. A shuttlebox was used by used by Martin Seligman and Steven Maier to demonstrate the phenomenon of: A) learned helplessness. B) shaping. C) taste aversions. D) stimulus generalization.
27. Which theorist stated, “Give me a dozen healthy infants, well-formed, and my own specified world to bring them up in and I’ll guarantee to take any one at random and train him to become any type of specialist I might select”? A) John B. Watson B) B. F. Skinner C) Edward L. Thorndike D) Ivan Pavlov
28. If B.F. Skinner were presented with the following terms, which one would he MOST likely reject? A) operant B) objective C) voluntary D) involuntary
29. Pavlov taught a dog to salivate at the sound of a musical tone by repeatedly pairing food with a musical tone. In this example, the food is the _____ and the dog salivating to the food is the _____. A) unconditioned stimulus; conditioned response B) unconditioned stimulus; unconditioned response C) conditioned response; unconditioned response D) conditioned stimulus; conditioned response
30. After two weeks of being screamed at by his drill sergeant at boot camp and shuddering with fear in response, a Marine recruit named Joe now shudders every time he hears the footsteps of his drill sergeant coming down the hall. When the drill sergeant enters the room, Joe snaps to attention and salutes. In this example, shuddering to the sound of the footsteps is a(n) _____ and saluting is a(n) _____. A) operant response in the presence of a discriminative stimulus; conditioned response B) unconditioned response; example of latent learning C) conditioned response; operant response in the presence of a discriminative stimulus D) unconditioned response; example of learned helplessness
31. When Anna was three years old, her aunt’s pet parakeet landed on her head and pecked at her scalp, hurting her. Following this incident, Anna was afraid of the parakeet. But over time, Anna has become afraid of anything that flies, including butterflies, large flying insects, and wild birds. This example illustrates the phenomenon of _____ in _____ conditioning. A) instinctive drift; operant B) stimulus discrimination; classical C) biological preparedness; operant D) stimulus generalization; classical
32. In Watson and Rayner’s “Little Albert” study, _____ was the unconditioned stimulus (UCS). A) the loud clanging sound B) the sight of the white rat C) fear in response to the loud clanging sound D) fear in response to the sight of the rat
33. _____ is the application of learning principles to help people learn more effective or adaptive behaviors. A) Behavior modification B) Operant training C) Classical conditioning D) Discrimination training
34. According to Focus on Neuroscience, neurons that fire both when action is performed and when action is simply perceived are called: A) glial cells. B) mirror neurons. C) interneurons. D) reflective cells.
35. _____ formulated the “law of effect.” A) B. F. Skinner B) John B. Watson C) Albert Bandura D) Ivan Pavlov
36. A pigeon in operant chamber #1 regularly receives a pellet of food after every 10 pecks at a red disk, no matter how long it takes. A rat in operant chamber #2 regularly receives a pellet of food for the first bar press it makes after 10 minutes have passed, no matter how many bar presses it makes. The pigeon is on a _____ schedule of reinforcement, and the rat is on a _____ schedule of reinforcement. A) fixed-ratio; fixed-interval B) fixed-interval; fixed-ratio C) fixed-ratio; variable-interval D) fixed-ratio; variable-ratio
37. _____ was the theorist who discovered the basic process of classical conditioning. A) Albert Bandura B) B. F. Skinner C) John B. Watson D) Ivan Pavlov
38. Which of the following suggestions would probably help you overcome the temptation to choose a short-term reinforcer over a long-term reinforcer? A) Rewarding yourself with the short-term reinforcer before you perform the
behaviors that will lead to reinforcement in the long term. B) Focusing your attention on the delayed, long-term reinforcer. C) Strengthening your resolve by surrounding yourself with stimuli that remind you of
the short-term reinforcer. D) Avoiding making an advance commitment to the long-term goal, and adopt a
flexible approach to maximizing available reinforcement.
39. _____’s research contributed to television and radio serial dramas that are used to promote social change and healthy behaviors around the world. A) B. F. Skinner B) Albert Bandura C) John Garcia D) Edward L. Thorndike
40. The manager of a large shopping mall was upset about the groups of rowdy teenagers who were hanging out by the mall entrance and scaring off his adult customers. He discovered that, if he played classical music over the loudspeakers by the door, the teenagers no longer gathered at the entrance. The mall manager’s use of classical music to modify the teenagers’ behavior is an example of: A) the operant conditioning extinction procedure. B) punishment by application. C) punishment by removal. D) negative reinforcement.
41. The basic premise of repressed memory therapy or recovered memory therapy is that: A) adult psychological problems are often due to sexual abuse in childhood, and
memories of the childhood abuse have been repressed. B) memories can be changed through hypnosis and suggestion. C) people can be trained or taught to actively suppress traumatic memories, which
will result in improved psychological functioning. D) adult psychological problems are usually due to clear and vivid memories of
childhood sexual abuse that are difficult to actively suppress.
42. You can keep information in short-term memory beyond the usual 20-second duration by: A) engaging in maintenance rehearsal. B) using clustering. C) engaging in chunking. D) using imagination inflation.
43. Blane vividly remembers the day he attended Game 6 of the World Series. He remembers what he was wearing, where he parked, what he ate, how many hits each team had, and the celebration that ensued after his favorite team won. Blane’s memory of this event is stored in his _____ memory. A) conscious B) working C) long-term D) sensory
44. A classic experiment by psychologist George Sperling demonstrated that: A) the capacity of short-term memory is virtually limitless. B) the schemas that people hold in a particular situation can erroneously influence the
details they later remember about the situation. C) distributed practice is superior to massed practice. D) information is held in visual sensory memory for about half a second.
45. In Baddeley’s model of working memory, one component called the _____ is specialized for verbal material, such as lists of numbers or words. A) visuospatial sketchpad B) semantic network C) phonological loop D) central executive
46. When you are in a positive mood, you are more likely to recall positive memories. This phenomenon is referred to as _____, and it is one form that _____ can take. A) source amnesia; source monitoring B) mood congruence; the encoding specificity principle C) inattentional blindness; encoding failure D) mood congruence; long-term potentiation
47. Years after H. M.’s surgery, doctors were surprised that he had acquired: A) atypical Parkinson’s symptoms. B) a full range of episodic memories. C) some new semantic knowledge. D) a lifetime of false memories.
48. In the study in which participants sat briefly in a psychology professor’s office: A) most participants were unable to remember significant details of the office when
tested later. B) most participants were able to accurately remember significant details of the
objects that were present in the office when tested later. C) memory for details of the office was easily distorted by the later use of
misinformation during the recall test. D) many participants erroneously remembered items that were not actually present in
the room but were consistent with the schema of a professor’s office.
49. Perceiving a picture activates areas of the _____, while perceiving a sound activates areas of the _____. A) left prefrontal cortex; right prefrontal cortex B) visual cortex; auditory cortex C) cerebellum; hippocampus D) hypothalamus; cerebellum
50. Your _____ is/are the brain region(s) that is/are responsible for retrieving and organizing information that is associated with episodic and autobiographical memories. A) frontal lobes B) cerebellum C) amygdala D) hypothalamus
51. The famous case of the man known as H. M. illustrates the important role played by _____ in the formation of new memories. A) the amygdala B) beta-amyloid plaques and neurofibrillary tangles C) the hippocampus D) the cerebellum
52. During a test of his short-term memory, Tommy was given lists of items to remember. He found the task to be much easier if he grouped the items according to whether they were animals, plants, minerals, and so on. Tommy is using a memory aid called: A) clustering. B) the self-referencing technique. C) chunking. D) massed practice.
53. Of the different types of memory, _____ memory has the SHORTEST duration. A) working B) sensory C) short-term D) long-term
54. Professor Sheehan spent most of the class session lecturing on different aspects of memory and ended by reminding her students of the test at the next class session. After her students had shuffled out of the classroom, Professor Sheehan noticed a student’s cellphone on a desk toward the back of the classroom. The student forgetting his cellphone is an everyday example of _____ that is most probably due to _____. A) inattentional blindness; source amnesia B) source amnesia; retrieval cue failure C) prospective memory; retrieval cue failure D) absentmindedness; encoding failure
55. Repeating information over and over involves: A) clustering. B) chunking. C) elaborative rehearsal. D) maintenance rehearsal.